/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/AskHistorians
There is a ongoing debate in the United Kingdom regarding Winston Churchill. Many Brits believe he was the one that won the War for the Allies. Is this a historically accurate and correct view?
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In the 80s, the USSR needed to import agricultural products to feed its citizens, including from its mortal enemy the United States. Why didn't the latter simply let the former starve?
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Why did cuisines of some countries with a hotter climate, developed to be much more spicy? (Except the fact that spices grow there)
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